Football 2010-2011

[worm]

Yeah I agree it should be B. UEFA have their reasons, but as normal they differ to those of the fan.

[TheGayTent]

No you would not.

[strummer77]

I reckon it's fairly straight-forward. You're 'cup tied' rather than 'team tied'.

Edited March 11, 2011 by strummer77

[worm]

But he isn't cup-tied. Because he hasn't played in this tournament and he could have played for another team if Ajax hadn't been 'relegated' to the EL

[ampersand]

garth looks awfy suggestive this week on football focus

[eFestivals]

He was playing for a team competing in the tournament Liverpool are in. He can't play for an opposing team in any competition involving Ajax, therefore he's cup tied as an ex-player.

That seems logical to me.

In which case, how they work cup-tying for the FA Cup and League Cup must seem illogical to you - as that works on the basis that strummer77 is saying should work here.

[strummer77]

He was playing for a team competing in the tournament Liverpool are in. He can't play for an opposing team in any competition involving Ajax, therefore he's cup tied as an ex-player.

That seems logical to me.

Edited March 11, 2011 by strummer77

[worm]

Bit like someone being cup-tied from the FA Cup because he has played for someone else in the league this season.

[strummer77]

I don't think so. This is a different scenario altogether. The league has nothing to do with the FA cup. It's about the cup you're in. So to clarify......

Liverpool have been playing in a competition and have aquired a player from another club who were also eligible for that tournament. When Liverpool entered the competition, he was registered with Ajax. That's a straight-forward cup tie to me.

Edited March 11, 2011 by strummer77

[worm]

How is it a straight-forward cup-tie?

The idea of the 'cup-tie' rule has always been about appearances, not registration so that is irrelevant.

[worm]

This UEFA cup-tie rule is bizarre because in this case it doesn't count the CL and EL as separate competitions, whereas in Torres' case it does. It should be a far more straightforward rule- like the one that existed and worked fine for decades but they decided to change...

Edited March 11, 2011 by worm

[TheGayTent]

Who cares...? It's 6th round weekend...I'm f**king excited....c'mon you Irons....que sera sera

[strummer77]

I don't see the issue. Anyone signing from a Champions League team to a Europa team should be automatically tied.

Edited March 12, 2011 by strummer77

[worm]

Then you agree the rule is wrong. Because they aren't.

This is what I'm arguing, the rule has a lack of consistency.

Edited March 12, 2011 by worm

[worm]

Who cares...? It's 6th round weekend...I'm f**king excited....c'mon you Irons....que sera sera

[worm]

Anyway, lets agree to disagree. I know a lot of people who share my view and I'm sure a lot share your view.

Edited March 12, 2011 by worm

[jammy2211]

The problem if Ajax had stayed in the Champions league - as oppose to get relegated to the Europa league - Suarez would be eligible for Liverpool, despite as you said calling them the 'same tournament'. If they're the same tournament, then playing in one should make the player cup tied for both, but it doesn't in all cases, but only some certain scenarios, which just seems silly.

You just said the Champions League is part of the Europe tournament, so why should Torres be able to play in the Europa for Liverpool and Champions League for Chelsea in the same season? :/.

[ampersand]

think the mcleish pic is a bit inappropriate on bbc football front page!

[Greeny_Musicchild]

It seems weird but it's a simple idea, Liverpool and Ajax are now playing the same tournement (regardless of Ajax not being before) and so all the players each team has fielded in the competition are 'cup-tied'.

Ajax's Europa league campaign involved playing in the Champions League. Therefore part of the reason they are where they are is the players they fielded in the CL. If it was possible to qualify for the Champions League through the Europa league I'd expect Torres to be ineligible for Chelsea. It's perfectly logical.

[TheGayTent]

No one cares about the FA cup.

[worm]

It seems weird but it's a simple idea, Liverpool and Ajax are now playing the same tournement (regardless of Ajax not being before) and so all the players each team has fielded in the competition are 'cup-tied'.

Ajax's Europa league campaign involved playing in the Champions League. Therefore part of the reason they are where they are is the players they fielded in the CL. If it was possible to qualify for the Champions League through the Europa league I'd expect Torres to be ineligible for Chelsea. It's perfectly logical.

[worm]

The problem if Ajax had stayed in the Champions league - as oppose to get relegated to the Europa league - Suarez would be eligible for Liverpool

[strummer77]

The problem if Ajax had stayed in the Champions league - as oppose to get relegated to the Europa league - Suarez would be eligible for Liverpool, despite as you said calling them the 'same tournament'. If they're the same tournament, then playing in one should make the player cup tied for both, but it doesn't in all cases, but only some certain scenarios, which just seems silly.

You just said the Champions League is part of the Europe tournament, so why should Torres be able to play in the Europa for Liverpool and Champions League for Chelsea in the same season? :/.

Edited March 12, 2011 by strummer77

[ampersand]

Anyway, FA Cup weekend. United v Arsenal should be very very interesting

[strummer77]

just hope they have a good go at each other. hope it's not a tentative game for the most part.